Should Jesus die on the cross for God to forgive the sin of Humanity? Was it not possible for God to forgive sins without the death of Jesus? I mean there are prophecies are there in the old testament. But objectively thinking, why can’t God forgive the sin of mankind without requiring the death of Jesus. I do agree that I am just a finite man and do not have any rights to question the creator God. But just wondering if any of you had this question and have an answer?
i think so. for our sin has the sacrifice. we need blood to wash our sin
If we repent and return back from our sins, we would not put Jesus on cross and died for us. God is powerful but powerless in love.
Thank you for responding to my question. But if God is all powerful why can’t he forgive without killing his own son? Why should he send his son to die on this earth? Couldnt it have been possible for God to just forgive humanity without Jesus’ death?
Hello @Taiyanghua, yes in Hebrews it says that if we continue to live in sin we are nailing Jesus to the cross repeatedly. But my question is historically was it required for Jesus to die on the cross for my sins to be forgiven? Or was forgiveness possible without the cross of Jesus Christ? Thanks
Thank you for your sharing.!
Jesus‘ cross is to satisfy the requirement of justice. Sin can’t be forgiven without price. Our sins can’t be forgiven without His blood. God is righteous. Jesus’ death is redemption. He died not because of His own sins, but for our sins. We can’t save ourselves. We have limitations.
The gospel is God’s power to save those who believe it.
There is no other way to be saved.
First I have to start with how you phrased your question. If I misunderstood you, just read through this and go on as I want to address your question.
You began your question “Should” … as though it were something not already done and finished. There is nothing any of us can do to make it NOT happen. It has already happened.
There is an answer in scripture to this:
Mark 14:32-42 New King James Version (NKJV)
32 Then they came to a place which was named Gethsemane; and He said to His disciples, “Sit here while I pray.” 33 And He took Peter, James, and John with Him, and He began to be troubled and deeply distressed. 34 Then He said to them, “My soul is exceedingly sorrowful, even to death. Stay here and watch.”
35 He went a little farther, and fell on the ground, and prayed that if it were possible, the hour might pass from Him. 36 And He said, “Abba, Father, all things are possible for You. Take this cup away from Me; nevertheless, not what I will, but what You will.”
37 Then He came and found them sleeping, and said to Peter, “Simon, are you sleeping? Could you not watch one hour? 38 Watch and pray, lest you enter into temptation. The spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak.”
39 Again He went away and prayed, and spoke the same words. 40 And when He returned, He found them asleep again, for their eyes were heavy; and they did not know what to answer Him.
41 Then He came the third time and said to them, “Are you still sleeping and resting? It is enough! The hour has come; behold, the Son of Man is being betrayed into the hands of sinners. 42 Rise, let us be going. See, My betrayer is at hand.”
This shows that even Jesus, praying to the Father, was answered that God was not WILLING that Jesus should not drink of the cup of this crucifixion that was soon to happen. Jesus stated that “all things are possible for You”. So there is your answer. Yes, it was possible, but it was not God’s will.
Which prophecies? Yes, there are prophecies in the Old Testament. But to which are you referring? If to those that prophesy about Jesus’ coming and substitutionary death on the cross, then your next words…
is not objective thought. It is only a refusal to take into account the scriptures and the veracity of the God’s word, or to try to find answers to a Biblical question somewhere outside the Bible. When it comes to historical records that are stated in the Bible there is plenty of evidence outside of the Bible to support what is recorded in the Bible. But doctrinal questions are answered inside the Bible.
If you meant something else, I’d like to know what you meant so I can understand.
From the beginning, literally, right after the fall in the Garden of Eden, God made a “covering” for Adam and Eve to hide their shame of being naked (which was not present at the beginning before the fall) by killing animals to use their skins to cover them. See Genesis 3). After that, Cain and Abel made sacrifices to God. The sacrifice by Abel was acceptable and good in God’s sight, as it was the best of his flock. Moving on to Abraham, he too, made sacrifices to God. It wasn’t until Moses in Exodus, that God introduced the reason for these sacrifices. These were ongoing requirements for all of Israel, morning and night daily, and more often on days specified by God through Moses. They were atonement for sin. They had to do this continuously (day and night) because animal sacrifices were not able to truly relieve the guilt people carried for their sin, in God’s eyes.
Why did God require animal sacrifices in the Old Testament? <-- click here for explanation with scripture, in brief
These were ALL foreshadowing the ultimate and final, once for all, sacrifice that Jesus Christ accomplished on the cross. Why then would Jesus NOT die on the cross to forgive the sins of this world?
He became victorious when He died on the cross. It is a win-win situation